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Paul Grubach of Ohio argues that Eichmann’s word is not proof enough, Thursday, January 23, 2003 ![]() Did Hitler order it? is Eichmann’s word proof?
I AM writing a review of Mark Roseman’s The Wannsee Conference and the Final Solution: A Reconsideration (Henry Holt, Metropolitan Books, 2002) for Germar Rudolf’s English language journal. The book was very favorably reviewed by Ian Kershaw and Richard Evans.
You claimed that Eichmann had inserted this phrase in his manuscript so that, if he was captured, his defense would be that he was merely following orders (pp.248-249). Evans claims you are simply trying to rationalize away the evidence that does not fit your views. Lo and behold!! On page 54, Roseman makes the claim that “Both [Rudolf] Höss’s and Eichmann’s testimonies lack credibility.” A few sentences later he states:
On page 96, Roseman discusses how Eichmann spoke of the Wannsee Conference after he was captured in the post-war years: Roseman’s claims support your position. If Eichmann’s testimony is unreliable, and if he had a vested interest in establishing that his Nazi superiors had given him a clear set of orders for mass murder that absolved him of responsibility, then it follows that he very well may have inserted the phrase–“…Hitler has given the orders for the physical destruction of the Jews.”–in his postwar [1955/1956] manuscript. Thus, how can Richard Evans possibly castigate you for “rationalizing away the evidence,” when a book of which he has given a favorable review offers evidence for your point of view on the Eichmann passage?
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